Newer Moscow Well

["John Danahy" <JDANAHY@turbonet.com>]

Some thoughts!!!

1  If the city paid more for the property than the market value listed by
the county assessors office, isn't the city then engaging to artificially
inflate property values so to gain greater property tax revenues??  Does the
city, in paying more than market value, raise property values and thus
property taxes of other lots in the area without voter approval?
It seems to be a well accepted credo that interest shown in property by any
taxing district automatically adds zeros to the price.  Shouldn't the city
be limited in how much it can pay for any lot?

2)  By purchasing the lot, the city removes said property from the tax
roles, thus depriving other taxing entities of revenue.  If the city paid
market value, then tax revenues decreased by @ $2000.00 per year.  While
this isn't a large number, it does impact other taxing districts.  The city
can replace lost revenue by simply raising the price of water.  Other
district do not have such luxury.  Does not the city, or any taxing
district, in removing property from the tax roles, have a responsibility to
other tax district to replace lost revenue?  Especially when the local tax
base does not include the property owned by the UI?

John

John and Laurie Danahy
jdanahy@turbonet.com